I was curious if a statement from a certain ssri's rep we had in today had any actual evidenced based backing. If so would someone point me in the direction of a study to verify?
Essentially their claim is that for each trial of an ssri/snri that is used and failed, you are reducing the future potential response of the future ssri/snri (e.g. if prozac were to have 100% efficacy if it was my first med of choice for a patient that it would have… let's say 85% efficacy if you trialed them on 2 prior ssri's before using it). I stopped them from continuing with their discussion as this is a concept I am unfamiliar with but they couldn't point to a source. However they assured me that it most certainly is true but they just didn't have the resource in front of them, to which I am questionable. This circled back to them saying that this is why, as a prescriber, that their newer agemt should be used earlier than somewhat older (and more affordable) ssri/snri meds.
Hopefully this drawn out question makes sense. The thought popped into my head before going to bed and now I can't sleep without looking into this.
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