Had a discussion with a medical student regarding the origin of faltulance, she commented that eating your meal rapidly could lead to intaking air into the stomach, which could lead to air entering the upper GI.
I was not convinced, by my logic
the stomach contents is liquid, and if the stomach was filled with it, the gas would rise to the top and never reach the pyloric sphincter. Maybe if the stomach contents was chunky… but I don't think that's the case.
She delivered the coup de grâce by quoting Sabiston, where it is mentioned that in a colon blockage the air originates 1/3 from microbial processes and 2/3 from swallowed air!
So my questions are generally:
- Can swallowed air really enter the GI tract in a healthy human?
- If So how does this happen if the stomach contents is normally liquid?
- Finally, Can this really affect faltulance? Can flatulance be reduced by reducing intaked air during eating?
Thank you for helping a curious mind 🙂
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